Aug. 15th, 2017 12:36 pm
Million dollar question
Yesterday, as we discussed VA events we discovered interesting legal issue: given that some 'sponsor" fully supports the astroturfing group, most of the group participants are paid for promoting the agenda declared by the group's articles, the group does compete for a particular resource, then could we state that aforementioned group is engaged in the commercial rather then political activity?
For example: BLM was created by Soros in order to "promote' racial issues. Since KKK was on its deathbed and white supremacists were largely marginalized there were nothing to justify left wing model. So, BLM was created in order to restore racial tensions (Baltimore) in order to promote lefties agenda, thus help lefties to gain the power/resources.
This looks and works exactly the same way as lobbying or aggressive marketing does. Therefore, can we look at this as acommercial activity rather then political one?
Lawyers and legal experts, your input is greatly appreciated.
For example: BLM was created by Soros in order to "promote' racial issues. Since KKK was on its deathbed and white supremacists were largely marginalized there were nothing to justify left wing model. So, BLM was created in order to restore racial tensions (Baltimore) in order to promote lefties agenda, thus help lefties to gain the power/resources.
This looks and works exactly the same way as lobbying or aggressive marketing does. Therefore, can we look at this as acommercial activity rather then political one?
Lawyers and legal experts, your input is greatly appreciated.
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